本试卷共 12 页，共 150 分。考试时长 120 分钟。考生务必将答案答在答题纸上，在试卷 上作答无效。考试结束后，将答题纸交回。
第一部分： 听力理解（共三节， 30 分）
第一节 （共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分） 听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一道小
题，从每题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳
选项。听完每段对话后，你将有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话你 将听一遍。
1. What does the woman want?
A. The salt.
B. The pepper.
C. The spoon.
2. What will the weather be like according to the radio?
A. Rainy.
B. Sunny.
C. Windy.
3. Who are the paparazzi following?
A. Michael.
B. Kathy.
C. Janice.
4. What is the man’s favorite sport? A. Football.
B. Baseball.
C. Basketball.
5. Where will the woman go this weekend? A. To the National Library. To the shopping mall.
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B. To the amusement park. C.
第二节 （共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，15 分） 听下面四段对话。每段对话后有几道小题，从
每题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳
选项。听每段对话前，你将有 5 秒钟的时间阅读每小题。听完后，每小题将给出 5 秒钟的作 答时间。每段对话你将听两遍。
6. What is the woman’s research about? A. The movies students like best. B. The things students do after school. C. The sports students are interested in.
7. What is the most unexpected finding of the research? A. Students rarely do housework. B. Few students go to the movies.
C. Most students play computer games.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8 至 9 题。 8. What type of book does the man need? A. About engineering.
B. About computer.
C. About finance.
9. How will the woman help the man?
A. By searching the shelves for the book.
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B. By getting the book from other
libraries.
C. By checking the computer to find the book.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 10 至 12 题。
10. Why does the man make the call?
A. To make a reservation. B. To change a reservation. C. To confirm a reservation.
11. What service is included in the price?
A. Internet access.
12. Which apartment does the man choose?
A. The one on the 1st floor. floor.
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B. Newspaper delivery. C. Breakfast delivery.
B. The one on the 9th
C. The one on the 13th floor.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 13 至 15 题。
13. What do you think the man is?
A. A hotel attendant.
14. Where can the woman find the washing powder?
A. In the cupboard.
15. When is the best time to visit the gallery?
A. On Thursday.
第三节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，共 7.5 分）
听下面一段独白，完成第 16 至 20 五道小题，每小题仅填写一个词。听独白前，你将有 ．．20 秒钟的时间阅读试题，听完后, 你将有 60 秒钟的作答时间。这段独白你将听两遍。
B. A repairman. C. A tour guide.
B. On the shelf. C. In the box.
B. On Friday. C. On Sunday.
The textbook Things to prepare 4
Things to do The final exam Read some articles. A 3000-word 20 on a topic 5
第二部分：知识运用（共两节，45 分）
第一节 语法填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分, 共 15 分） 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容填
空。在未给提示词的空白处仅填写 1 个适当的单词，在 给出提示词的空白处用括号内所给词的正确形式填空。
A
Hangzhou is one of China’s most popular cities. It is full of cultural heritage(遗产) and famous
21 its natural scenery. Italian traveller Marco Polo described Hangzhou as the 21 (fine) and most splendid city in the world. The beauty of West Lake has inspired countless poets and painters, and you can’t leave without 23 (try) the Longjing Shrimp, one of Hangzhou’s signature dishes. The dynamic city is home to many of China’s tech companies including e-commerce giant Alibaba.
B
Today, dogs are found 24 (help) to all who fly in airplanes. They are trained to smell, track, and find bombs on planes and in luggage. Dogs are easy to train because they already have deep connection to humans. Many of these dogs are donated to the safety program, where they 25 (give) a good home. The partnership between dogs and humans allows each to profit from the special talents of the other as they work together 26 （save）lives.
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C
It was almost midnight, but Mary couldn’t fall asleep. “One sheep, two sheep…” She 27
(start) to count sheep. But did it really work? Actually, some 28 (scientist) believe this may not be a very good way to fall asleep. Some people try so hard to count that they can be more
clear-headed. Instead, they can try taking a bath to fall asleep. They can also think about a quiet beach or a walk in the woods, 29 can make them relaxed and fall asleep more 30 (quick).
第二节 完形填空（共 20 小题；每小题 1.5 分，共 30 分） 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每
题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项， 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Father’s Example
At the age of 16, my father sat beneath the street light to study until exhaustion kicked in. Sometimes, if he was lucky, the school guard would let him slip into the empty corridors to 31 the cold. Other nights, the guard shooed him away. The 32 of electricity in the home he shared with six
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family members was one of the easier roadblocks to overcome on his path to becoming a 33 .
Despite poor conditions, supporting the whole family after Grandpa’s death, and the 60%
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illiteracy（文盲）rate of his country, Pakistan, my father defeated the odds to establish his own clinic.
However, he decided to 34 this comfortable lifestyle and move to America to 35 limitless opportunities for his family.
Because of his 36 , I strive to take advantage of every opportunity. I transferred from my familiar suburban middle school, where I stood out, to the 37 International Baccalaureate（IB）
Diploma Program. Although I also made sacrifices, like my father, by switching schools, I have no
38 . At my current high school, I have endless 39 to excel and interact with students from many backgrounds. Leaving my friends and the 40 of living five minutes from school was a small price to pay after I put my life into perspective. Changing schools gave me the 41 to pursue rigorous (严格的) courses. My academic future challenges and pushes me.
For the rest of high school, I hope to keep my grades 42 , excel on standardized tests, and participate in summer programs. I understand that grades do not define a person, but I am motivated to study, like my father, 43 I reach success.
I firmly believe that to develop our society we must first assist the
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less 44 . I hope to choose a career that lets me do this. My motivation to become a doctor results from my desire to ease the 45 of others. Also, I realize that 46 is the groundwork of my future and that I must
47 a solid foundation in it to achieve my goals.
48 my father’s sisters, who married young and never graduated from high school, I enjoy my life in America with infinite possibilities, and I must work to 49 from all of them. My father worked his entire life to secure my future. I 50 it to him, and to myself, to make something of my education.
31. A. keep 32. A. lack
B. escape B. danger
C. defend
D. fight
C. delivery D. power C. doctor C. leave
D. professor D. continue D. seek
D. preparation
33. A. lawyer B. writer 34. A. lead 35. A. check
B. adopt
B. appreciate C. predict
B. talent
36. A. sacrifice 37. A. enjoyable 38. A. ideas 39. A. gifts
C. instruction
B. admirable C. developing D. challenging
C. concerns D. excuses C. opportunities C. result C. duty
D. decisions
B. regrets B. wishes
40. A. relief B. honor 41. A. drive
B. award
D. comfort D. turn
D. common
42. A. consistent
B. average C. typical
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43. A. though B. if C. until
D. since
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44. A. energetic B. friendly C. ambitious D. fortunate
C. worry
D. stress D. education D. give D. Beyond
45. A. burden B. pain
46. A. freedom B. interest C. health 47. A. build
B. follow
C. shake C. Unlike
48. A. Against B. With 49. A. withdraw B. benefit 50. A. offer
C. struggle D. recover
D. send
B. owe C. give
第三部分：阅读理解（共两节，40 分） 第一节 （共 15 小题；每小题 2 分，共 30 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上 将该项涂黑。
A
In December 2017, I attended a conference. Five successful women delivered speeches on the topic “Bouncing Back after Setbacks.” As I sat there listening to their many personal and professional mistakes and setbacks, I felt fortunate that I hadn’t made that many mistakes in my own life.
Those women had lost thousands in investments, started companies but failed, sold companies that later ended up being worth millions, and lost partners in the name of business. Despite knowing that they had, in fact, bounced back and were again doing very well, I was starting to feel sorry for them.
Then, as if someone whispered in my ear, I heard the words: “Don’t be so proud of yourself. You haven’t made any mistakes because you haven’t lived at
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all. Look how boring your life is.” Whose voice was this, and how dare it speak to me like that?
I think, for the first time, I heard my own heart speak. It shook me to my core, and it took all I had to keep from crying. I started thinking of the mistakes I had made. The voice was right. There weren’t many at all. I had followed a straight path for 38 years. I went to school, earned bachelor’s and master’s degrees with honors, and stayed at every job I’d had far longer than it was
professionally beneficial for me to do so. In fact, at 38, I had only had three jobs. “The devil(魔鬼)
you know is better than the one you don’t ” was my motto.
A quick review of my life made me realize that it was the actions I hadn’t taken that I was suddenly regretting. I hadn’t studied abroad. I hadn’t risked love. In fact, I was perpetually single. I hadn’t started a business. I hadn’t traveled enough. I had said “no” far more than “yes”.
The voice that whispered to me continued to the New Year. It was like it laughed at me. The thought of turning forty frightened me. It’s one thing to be unhappy and unsettled in your twenties, and perhaps even in one’s thirties. But was I going to start a new decade with the same boredom? I needed something to pick me up, some activity I could look forward to.
51. How did the author feel when first hearing stories from the 5 speakers?
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A. Regretful. B. Surprised.
C. Lucky.
D. Guilty.
52. The author felt like crying during the conference because she realized .
A. she hadn’t lived her life to the fullest B. she was deeply touched by the women C. she had nothing to be proud of in her life D. she had made a lot of mistakes in her life
53. What does the underlined sentence in Paragraph 4 probably mean?
A. The familiar devil is more frightening. B. Saying “no” is better than saying “yes”.
C. It’s better to stay within the comfort zone. D. You’d better change your job more frequently. 54. From the passage, we can learn that the author . A. felt afraid of ageing B. traveled abroad a lot C. was married in her thirties D. decided to do something new
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B
Printable Tags Turn Everyday Objects into Smart Devices
Engineers have developed printable metal tags (标贴) that could be attached to everyday objects and turn them into smart Internet of Things devices.
The metal tags are made from copper foil (铜箔) printed onto
thin, flexible, paper-like materials to reflect WiFi signals. The tags work essentially like “mirrors” that reflect radio signals from a WiFi router. When a user’s finger touches these “mirrors”, it disturbs the reflected WiFi signals in such a way that can be remotely sensed by a WiFi receiver like a smartphone.
The tags can be nailed onto objects that people touch every day, like water bottles, walls or doors. These objects then become smart and connected devices that can signal a WiFi device whenever a user interacts with them. The tags can also be shaped into thin keypads or smart home control panels that can be used to remotely operate WiFi-connected speakers and other Internet of Things devices.
Xinyu Zhang, a professor of electrical and computer engineering, named the technology
LiveTag. He pictures people using LiveTag technology to track human interaction with everyday objects. For example, LiveTag could potentially be used to assess
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the recovery of patients who have suffered from stroke (中风). “When patients return home, they could use this technology to provide data based on how they interact with everyday objects at home, whether they are opening or closing doors in a normal way, or if they are able to pick up bottles of water, for example. The amount, intensity and frequency of their activities could be recorded and sent to their doctors to evaluate their
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recovery,” said Zhang. “And this can all be done in the comfort of their own homes rather than
having to keep going back to the clinic for frequent testing,” he added.
The researchers note several limitations of the technology. LiveTag currently cannot work with a WiFi receiver further than one meter away, so researchers are working on improving the tag sensitivity and detection range. Ultimately, the team aims to develop a way to make the tags using normal paper and ink printing, which would make them cheaper to mass produce.
55. When people touch a printable metal tag, .
A. they are actually touching a mirror
B. the WiFi router will stop sending signals
C. the reflected WiFi signals will be disturbed
D. their fingers can be sensed by a WiFi router
56. LiveTag can probably be used to .
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A. precisely locate everyday objects
B. remotely control a WiFi-connected TV C. easily block signals from WiFi devices
D. greatly improve one’s physical condition
57. LiveTag helps stroke patients by
A. evaluating the process of their recovery
B. sending data of their activities to doctors
C. connecting their smartphones with doctors’
D. recording doctors’ assessments of their recovery
C
How to Make Friends, According to Science
Friendship is one of life’s most important features, and one too often
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.
taken for granted.
The human desire for companionship may feel boundless, but research suggests that our social capital is finite—we can only handle a certain number of relationships at one time. Social scientists have used some creative approaches to measure the size of people’s social networks; these have returned estimates ranging from about 250 to about 5,500 people. Looking more specifically at friendship, a study using the exchange of Christmas cards to test closeness put the average person’s friend group at about 121 people. However vast our networks may be, our inner circle tends to be much smaller. The average American trusts only 10 to 20 people. Moreover, that number may be shrinking: From 1998 to 2017, the average number of trusted friends decreased from three to two. This is both sad and of important consequence, because people who have strong social relationships tend to live longer than those who don’t.
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So what should you do if your social life is lacking? Here the research is instructive. To begin
with, don’t refuse to consider the humble acquaintance（交情）. Even interacting with people with whom one has weak social ties has a meaningful influence on well-being. Beyond that, building deeper friendships may be largely a matter of putting in time. A recent study out of the University of Kansas found that it takes about 50 hours of socializing to go from acquaintance to casual friend, an additional 40 hours to become a “real” friend, and a total of 200 hours to become a close friend.
If that sounds like too much effort, renewing inactive social ties can be especially rewarding. Reconnected friends can quickly recapture the trust they previously built, while offering each other a
dash of novelty（新奇）drawn from whatever they’ve been up to in the meantime. And if all else fails,
you could start randomly to tell secrets to people you don’t know that well. Self-disclosure makes us more likable, and as a bonus, we are more likely to favor those to whom we have revealed our soul.
Longing for closeness and connection is common and everywhere, which suggests that most of us are stumbling（跌跌撞撞）through the world, expecting companionship that could be easily
provided by the lonesome stumblers all around us. So set aside this article,
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turn to someone nearby, and try to make a friend.
58. From Paragraph 2, we can know that .
A. a strong social relationship can guarantee a long life
B. real friendships are based on the exchange of presents
C. people’s inner circle is decreasing despite large social networks
D. people’s social networks depend on their desire for companionship
59. What does the author suggest to improve one’s social life?
A. Sharing secrets with close friends. B. Choosing likable people as friends. C. Avoiding the humble acquaintance.
D. Spending time for deeper friendships.
60. What is the passage mainly
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about?
A. The tips on how to develop friendship. B. The reasons for seeking companionship.
C. The benefits brought by a good social life.
D. The relationship between friendship and happiness.
61. The author helps readers better understand his idea mainly by .
A. using research results
C. giving some examples
D. telling personal stories B. making comparisons
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D
Understanding Chinese Culture: The Challenge to the
West
Late last year, a New Zealand newspaper reported that China was sending 120 doctors to a Pacific island to assist with their community health. A positive action, one might think, but the focus of the story was to ask what China was doing in the Pacific, and how we have failed to the extent that we have allowed this to happen. What are the Chinese doing on “our patch”?
In fact, the rise of China is to a certain degree promoted as a threat. The challenge to the West, then, is to improve an appreciation of what China is. How does China’s cultural heritage present a positive advantage to the world?
To understand this, it is important to consider the foundations of Chinese culture and society. China has more than 5,000 years of uninterrupted cultural development. We at least need to go back
2,500 years to study Taoism, for its cultural and philosophical roots, and Confucius for his social philosophy and influence on society.
Taoism provides us with many aspects of the special nature of Chinese culture and philosophy. The concept of yin and yang in Taoism, which brings us balance through the integration of opposites, is well-known but not fully understood in the West. Chinese medicine, which tends to take a longer time to take effect, with a focus to work in harmony with the body, is to restore imbalance causing diseases
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rather than targeting only the specific symptom or problem area.
Confucius’ contribution to Chinese society also provides a difference to Western society. Eastern society places the community as the most important component of society. In Western society, it is the individual that is considered to be the unit of society, compatible with an objective analysis of issues.
Considering a monkey, cow and banana, which is the odd one out? The vast majority of Chinese will choose the cow because the monkey eats the banana, which gives food to the monkey. Western people invariably choose the banana because they see the objective classification of the monkey and cow. The consideration of these two responses, and extension into deeper philosophical understanding, presents a major difference between Chinese and Western thought.
Therefore, the challenge to the West is to embrace an alternative perspective on issues. It is time
for Western media to seek a balance in reporting affairs, 评判）the Western and critiqu（e
It is time for a Chinese voice to be heard in the West.
62. The news report in the first paragraph
A. tells a story of Chinese doctors B. demonstrates the concern of the West
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perspective.
_.
C. stresses the decline of Western culture D. shows the medical development of China
63. Why is Chinese medicine mentioned in the passage?
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A. To help better understand Taoism.
B. To define the concept of yin and yang.
C. To emphasize the contributions of Taoism.
D. To express the author’s pride in Chinese culture.
64. We can learn from the passage that .
A. Taoism has a greater influence than Confucianism
B. Confucianism finds balance in integrating opposites
C. the West takes China’s cultural heritage as an advantage
D. Eastern society considers community the essential unit of society
65. The author’s purpose of writing the passage is to .
A. warn the West of the threat of China
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B. introduce to the West what China really is
C. recommend the West to accept the rise of China
D. appeal to the West to have an objective attitude to China
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，共 10 分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的七个选项中选出能
填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为 多余选项。
People worldwide are living longer. Today, most people can expect to live into their sixties and
beyond. By 2050, the world’s population aged 60 and older is expected to total 2 billion, up from
900 million in 2015.
While this shift in proportion (比例) of a country’s population towards older ages---known as ageing---started in high-income countries, for example in Japan, 30% of the population are already over 60 years old, it is now low- and middle-income countries that are experiencing the greatest change. 66
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At the biological level, ageing results from molecular (分子的) and cellular damage over time.
This leads to a growing risk of disease and eventually death. 67 That’s why we say there is no “typical” older person. While some 70 year-olds enjoy extremely good health, other 70 year-olds are weak and require a lot of help from others.
68 Retirement, relocation and the death of friends and partners are some of the possible reasons. For example, moving older people to a better house, which seems an admirable behavior, may do harm to their health eventually.
69 Some people believe older people can be active and productive. A longer life brings opportunities, both for older people themselves and for society. They can pursue new activities such as further education or a new career. They also contribute in many ways to
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communities. 70 This can lead to discrimination against older people. Therefore, society as a whole needs to address the ageist attitude by developing sound policies and offering various opportunities so that older people can experience fulfilling ageing.
A. Nobody can ever escape from the ageing process.
B. But these changes are only loosely linked to a person’s age.
C. Yet the extent of their contribution depends heavily on their health.
D. Beyond biological changes, ageing is also related to other life changes. E. Although ageing is a universal trend, views towards older people divide.
F. However, to others, older people are weak, dependent, and a burden to society.
G. By 2050, many countries like Chile and China will have a similar rate of older people to Japan.
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第四部分：书面表达（共两节，35 分） 第一节（15 分）
假设你是红星中学高三学生李华，你的英国朋友 Jim 希望了解你在过去一年中的最大收获。 请你给他写一封邮件，内容包括：
1. 简述你的最大收获； 2. 谈谈该收获对你的影响； 3. 表达对新一年的期待。
注意：1. 词数不少于 50；
2. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jim,
Yours, Li Hua
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（请务必将作文写在答题卡指定区域内）
23
第二节 （20 分） 假设你是红星中学高三学生李华。请根据以下四幅图的先后顺序，写一
篇英文周记，记
述你与父母共度周末的全过程。
注意：词数不少于 60。 提示词：攀岩 rock climbing
24
（请务必将作文写在答题卡指定区域内）
参考答案及评分标准
第一部分：听力理解（共三节，30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分） 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. B
25
第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
16. History 17. Tuesday 18. plan 19. opinion 20. essay 每小题1.5分。如出现拼写错误不计分；16题首字母小写扣0.5分，17题首字母小写不得分；如每小题超过一个词不计分。
第二部分：知识运用（共两节，45分）
第一节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分）
21. for 22. finest 23. trying 24. helpful 25. are given/will be given
26. to save 27. started 28. scientists 29. which 30. quickly
第二节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，共30分） 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. D 36. A
37. D 38. B 39. C 40. D
41. A 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. B 46. D 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. B
第三部分：阅读理解（共两节，40分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，共30分） 51. C 52. A 53. C 54. D D 60. A
61. A 62. B 63. A 64. D
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分） 66. G 67. B 68. D
55. C 56. B 57. B 58. C 59.
65. D
69. E 70. F
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第四部分：书面表达（共两节，35分） 第一节（15分） 一、评分原则：
1．本题总分15分，按4个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以档次的要求来衡量，确定或降低档次，最后给分。
3．评分时应考虑：内容是否完整，条理是否清楚，交际是否得体，语言是否准确。 4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可以接受。
5．词数少于50，从总分中减去1分。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求： 分值 第一档 (13分--15分) 评分标准说明 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 内容完整，条理清楚； 交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求；体现出较强的语言运用能力。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 （9分--12分） 内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求； 所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求； 语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。 基本达到了预期的写作目的。 27
第三档 （4分--8分） 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 内容不完整； 所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。 未能清楚地传达信息。 第四档 （1分--3分） 0 未完成试题规定的任务。 写了少量相关信息； 语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。 未能传达任何信息；写的内容与要求无关。 One Possible Version
Dear Jim, How is it going? In your email, you mentioned you wanted to know my greatest harvest in the past year, so now I’m very delighted to share it with you.
Last October, I celebrated my 18 birthday with my classmates, symbolizing that I have grown up. Learning to take the responsibility as an adult is the biggest reward for me and it has many positive influences on my life. Firstly, I am much clearer about my goal in life and I feel highly motivated to achieve it. More importantly, I learn to appreciate what I have already had. The love and dedication of my teachers and parents keep me going, and all I need to do now is to play my part.
When it comes to the coming year, I do hope I can achieve my dream and be admitted to my ideal university. Meanwhile, I sincerely hope all your best dreams can come true!
Looking forward to your good news.
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th
Yours, Li Hua 第二节（20分） 一、评分原则：
1．本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡
量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．评分时应考虑：内容要点的完整性、上下文的连贯、词汇和句式的多样性及语言的准确性。
4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5．词数少于60，从总分中减去1分。 二、内容要点：
1．复习功课 2．公园散步 3．体验攀岩 4．返回学校
三、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 29
·覆盖了所有内容要点； ·运用了多样的句式和丰富的词汇； ·语法或用词方面有个别错误，但为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致；体18分－20分 现了较强的语言运用能力； ·有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，所写内容连贯、结构紧凑。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 ·覆盖了所有内容要点； ·运用的句式和词汇能满足任务要求； ·语法和用词基本准确，少许错误主要为尽可能表达丰富的内容所15分－17分 致； ·使用了简单的语句间连接成分，所写内容连贯。 达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 ·覆盖了内容要点； ·运用的句式和词汇基本满足任务要求； 12分－14分 ·语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。 基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 ·漏掉或未描述清楚主要内容； ·所用句式和词汇有限； 6分－11分 ·语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。 未能清楚地传达信息。 30
第五档 未完成试题规定的任务。 ·明显遗漏主要内容； 1分－5分 ·句式单调、词汇贫乏； ·语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。 0分 未能传达任何信息；所写内容与要求无关。 One Possible Version Last Friday night, faced with overwhelming academic tasks, I found myself on the verge of breaking down. With Gaokao approaching day by day, I was under great pressure. Having noticed all this, Mom suggested I relax a little bit during the weekend.
The next morning, my parents and I went to the park for a walk. The pavement there was covered with fallen leaves in yellow and orange, creating a unique scenery for this season. Holding a leaf in hand, I casually exchanged anecdotes with my parents, feeling the relaxation that I had been missing for a long time.
After lunch, we went rock climbing. Though the wall was high and steep, I was determined to conquer it. With my parents’ encouragement, I eventually managed to reach the top. At that moment, my confidence was restored.
On Monday morning, my parents saw me off at the school gate. Their warm smiles and raised thumbs filled me with energy. I waved them goodbye and promised to devote myself to the preparation for Gaokao. This weekend would go a long way with me as it was a new starting point, from which I believe I could go far.
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附：听力录音稿
高三英语第一学期末考试听力录音稿
Text 1
W: Would you mind passing me that, please? M: No problem. The salt or pepper? W: I meant the spoon. Text 2
W: Fairly warm this morning, isn’t it? M: Yes, the sun is shining, but the wind is strong. The radio warned of heavy rain in two hours. Text 3
W: Hey, Michael, have you heard about this? M: What, Kathy? W: You know Janice, the film star? The paparazzi are following her all the time. Isn’t it terrible? M: It seems to me that if you want to be famous, you have to accept everything the media do. Text 4
W: Daniel, what sort of sports do you usually do? M: I used to play football a lot. But I think baseball is more exciting, and I really love it. 32
W: Well, boys in my class like to play basketball. Text 5
M: Where are you going this weekend? Will you go to the National Library as usual? W: My son wants to go somewhere different this time, so my husband has booked a ticket to the amusement park. M: It sounds nice. W: Although I’d like to go to the shopping mall, I have to be with my family. Text 6
W: You know I have just finished a very interesting research about what students do after school. M: Really? What did you find? W: Well, I interviewed 30 students and 20 of them play computer games. M: Really? I never play them. Do you? W: Not much. Anyway, about half of them, 14 people, play some kind of sports like football, basketball, or swimming. M: I’m not surprised. People are getting more exercise these days. I’m one of them. W: Yes, that’s good for health. Besides, a few of them go to the movies. M: Mm, I do, too. W: But here is the most surprising result: only one of them helps the parents do some housework. M: That’s terrible.
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Text 7
W: Do you need help with something? M: I’m looking for a book for my engineering paper. The deadline is this Friday. But I can’t find one on the shelf. W: Have you checked the computer? M: Yes, I already have. It said the book is on that shelf, but it isn’t. There are only some books about finance. W: Well, I’ll see whether I can get one from other libraries. M: That’s so kind of you! W: Let me see. Today is Monday. I will contact them this afternoon. And you can call me tomorrow. M: Thank you very much. Text 8
W: Good afternoon. What can I do for you? M: Good afternoon. Would it be possible for me to have an apartment? W: Certainly, sir. M: How much is it, please? W: It is 320 yuan per day. M: What services come with that? W: Well, you will have your breakfast delivered for free, but extra charge is needed for Internet access and newspaper delivery. M: On which floor is the apartment? W: We have three apartments available. One is on the first floor, the rest are 34
on the ninth and thirteenth floor. M: Which is quiet? I hate noise at night. W: The ones on the ninth and thirteenth floor are quieter. M: Both of them face the south? W: The one on the thirteenth floor faces the south. M: I think I’ll take the one on the thirteenth floor. W: OK. Text 9
M: Hello. May I help you? W: Hi, it’s Laura Carlton here. We’ve just arrived at the holiday flat, but I can’t get the hot water and heating to work. M: Don’t worry. In the upstairs cupboard you will find the water heater. You’ll see three main controls on the left. Switch it to the “on” position. W: OK. While you are on the phone, we can’t find a few things we need, like extra pillows and some washing powder. Is there any? M: Pillows... Yes, if you look in the cupboard in your bedroom, there should be four or five on the top shelf. And if you want to do some washing, the powder should be near the door in the large blue box. W: Thanks. What about visiting the town? Could you give me some advice? M: As for places to visit, do go and see the art gallery. The exhibition is small but really good. It gets very crowded on Sundays, so I suggest you
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visit it on a quiet day, later in the week. But not on Thursdays which is a market day. W: Got it! Thanks a lot! Text 10
Good morning, everyone. I’m William Roberts, your history teacher of this term. At the very beginning, I’d like to give you some information and requirements of this course. It is scheduled at 2:00 pm. every Tuesday and Thursday. Please arrive at this room on time and remember to bring the textbook, assignment paper and the research plan with you. Before class you are expected to read some articles which are included in your handout, and in each class you should be involved in the group activities and voice your own opinion. Your final exam consists of three parts. First, complete a 3000-word essay on a topic. You can choose any topic you are interested in. Second, give a ten-minute talk in your study group. And the last is an open book exam at the end of this term. Do you have any question?
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