高三英语
2020.6
本试卷共 10 页，共 120 分。考试时长 100 分钟。考生务必将答案答在答题卡上，在试卷上作答无效。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分：知识运用（共两节，45分）
第一节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分）
阅读下列短文，根据短文内容填空。在未给提示词的空白处仅填写一个适当的单词，在给出提示词的空白处用括号内所给词的正确形式填空。 A
As a child growing up 1 England, James Reynolds was always excited by thunderstorms. Now, he runs straight towards them as a “storm chaser”.
Specialising in hurricanes and volcanoes, Reynolds travels the world to shoot
pictures of Earth’s most extreme weather events. The pictures are used by TV news channels around the world. It’s a 2 (danger) job though. He has almost been hit by flying window frames twice in the past 18 3 (month). However, he says the chase is always worth it for the places he has been to and the brilliant people he has met along the way. B
Amateur explorers have found what may have been the last undiscovered island on Earth. The island is round and about three quarters of a mile wide. It sits in the northern Pacific and is a place 4 it’s neither too hot nor too cold. It’s almost completely flat and rocky. The island’s only distinguishing feature is a slight hill on the eastern side. After spotting the hidden piece of land in 5 first looked like an e-map fault, the group of friends 6 (set) out in a boat to confirm what they’d found. They’re now running an online contest to name the island. C
Poetry is a beautiful art form. Its power lies in the ability to transform ordinary experiences by capturing（捕捉） a moment or emotion. 7 (write) poetry is a privilege and struggle, in part because we need to create in 8 (we) a new way of observing the world, capturing microscopic moments as materials for our work. Most of our time at the desk 9 (spend) wrestling with our imagination, and we
know that a successful poem arrives on the back of failure. There are moments when an idea will not translate onto paper. Yet, failure is good, because
every 10 (abandon) line we painstakingly remove prepares us for the ripe poem around the corner.
第二节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，共30分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Saving a Tiger Named Cinderella
On an icy day in February 2012, two hunters in eastern Russia discovered a limp bundle of fur lying in the snow. It was an orphaned cub（幼虎）！The cub hadn’t eaten in days, and was 11 enough for the hunters just to pick her up. Dr. Dale Miquelle, director of the Wildlife Conservation Society’s Russia Program, said, “A healthy tiger cub, even a three-month-old one, would give you reason to 12 before you stuck your hand too close to its teeth and claws. But this cub had no
13 left in her.”
The hunters wrapped the cub in a coat and 14 her to a local wildlife inspector,
Andrey Oryol. Over the following weeks, Oryol 15 the orphaned cub back to health. But now he had a new problem: What could he do with an 16 three-month-old tiger?
The cub was an Amur tiger. 17 a small number of Amur tigers remained in the wild, so scientists wanted to return 18 cubs to their natural habitat. The orphaned cub was taken to a new wildlife center. The center was designed for raising wild animals without 19 them to people. It uses hidden cameras and covered fences to keep workers out of 20 . That way, the animals don’t become 21 on humans.
The cub, now named Cinderella, became the center’s first tiger. Over the next year, she grew into a big, healthy tigress. In the center, she learned to hunt. By the spring of 2013, experts agreed she was 22 to return to the wild.
They chose the perfect new 23 for their tiger princess: the Bastak Nature Reserve. During the next two years, researchers watched Cinderella’s 24 . They set up cameras to snap photos. When Cinderella passed in front of one of these
camera 25 , it took her picture. Cinderella not only 26 , but grew healthy and strong.
Then, in December 2015, the cameras 27 exciting news: Cinderella had become a mother! For the first time ever, a tiger that humans had 28 and returned to the wild had given birth to two cubs of her own.
Tigers are some of the most admired animals on our planet, but they are also 29 . Thanks to the work of conservationists like Dr. Miquelle, there is new 30 for these magnificent cats.
11. A. weak B. pale C. sleepy D. lazy
12. A. hide B. hurt C. wonder D. pause
13. A. mercy B. effort C. will D. fight
14. A. delivered B. returned C. guided D. reported
15. A. taught B. pulled C. nursed D. trained
16. A. intelligent B. energetic C. excited D. amazing
17. A. Almost B. Still C. Even D. Only
18. A. newly-born B. rescued C. wounded D. hunted
19. A. exposing B. sending C. offering D. selling
20. A. place B. sight C. order D. mind
21. A. concentrated B. defensive C. dependent D. keen
22. A. welcome B. interested C. ready D. eager
23. A. continent B. neighborhood C. border D. kingdom
24. A. progress B. reaction C. appearance D. habitat
25. A. types B. traps C. shots D. scenes
26. A. succeeded B. recovered C. survived D. explored
27. A. edited B. expected C. prepared D. revealed
28. A. witnessed B. traded C. raised D. examined
29. A. endangered B. dominated C. preserved D. stressed
30. A. love B. hope C. home D. help
第二部分：阅读理解（共两节，40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A
The Education Outreach Section of the United Nations Department of Public Information invites young people from around the world between the ages of 15 and 24 to submit 10- to 15-second videos in English on how the Sustainable Development Goals can build peace. When making your videos, think about why ending poverty, addressing climate change, forging equality and ensuring access to education are important to creating a more peaceful world.
The most engaging videos will be featured on the United Nations International Day of Peace YouTube channel. Some will even be shown at an official event at United Nations Headquarters in New York on 16 September.
We will be posting selected clips at www.youtube.com/channel from 13 June (the start of the 100-day countdown) through 21 September, the International Day of Peace.
When you make your video, please state your name and country at the beginning. And remember that all videos should be appropriate for younger audiences.
We’ll be accepting your submissions from now until 1 September. So start sending your videos to unitednationspeaceday@gmail.com today!
Background: The International Day of Peace falls on 21 September. The General Assembly has declared this as a day devoted to strengthening the ideals of peace, both within and among all nations and peoples. Every year on this day, the United Nations calls on the people of the world to remember their common humanity and join together to build a future free of conflicts. The theme for this year, “The
Sustainable Development Goals: Building Blocks for Peace”, highlights how ending poverty, protecting the planet and ensuring prosperity for everyone all contribute to global harmony. The Sustainable Goals cover a broad range of issues, including poverty, hunger, health, education, climate change, gender equality, water, sanitation, energy, environment and social justice.
More information on the International Day of Peace and the Sustainable Development Goals: http://www.un.org/en/events/peaceday.
31. The participants should ______.
A. be at least twenty-four years old
B. upload clips onto the appointed website
C. come up with solutions to global problems
D. submit the videos no later than 1 September
32. What might be the proper words to start the video?
A. My name is Jimena, and I’m from Peru.
B. Hello, I’d like to introduce the event first.
C. Today I want to say something to young audiences.
D. What is the key to creating a more peaceful world?
33. Once chosen, the video will be ____.
A. put on a YouTube channel
B. posted on the web for one year
C. shown at the theater in New York
D. filmed on the International Day of Peace
34. What is the main purpose of the activity?
A. To collect video materials for the websites.
B. To raise young people’s concern about world peace.
C. To draw attention to the education of the next generation.
D. To popularize the International Day of Peace among the youth. B
It’s a Saturday night, the kids are asleep and we have no plans. Before we fall into our routine and watch a movie, I try to talk my husband into playing a card game.
Unconvinced, he continues tapping away on his phone. But just before disappearing into the social media rabbit hole, he has an idea. He looks over me and suggests, “Why don’t we try calling one of our friends?”
I look at him with raised brows, as if his suggestion is somewhat ridiculous and perhaps even socially unacceptable. You can’t just call someone out of the blue
now…right? But then I think again and realize that at one point in time, in the not so distant past, this was the norm. I spent my early teenage years connecting with friends through a phone that was connected to a wall. It wasn’t “smart”, but it allowed me to keep in touch with the latest gossip and news. We would chat for
hours, sometimes while I hid under my blanket in order to avoid the chance of being caught by my parents.
I could even memorize the phone numbers of loved ones then. While I did own an address book—and there was always the White Pages, where you could look people up by their names—I had the contact details of special friends, first loves and family members committed to memory. I guess these days, they would be on my “Favorites” list in my smartphone.
Today, many of my “favorite” people are followed from a distance through social media, and even they very rarely—if ever—would get an actual call from me. The birth announcement by my oldest friend is received through catching a well-defined bump into a photo that I scroll past. The news of a divorce from a couple whom I had considered my second parents when I was in middle school arrives after a photo of a woman led me on a quest for more gossip. Bits of such information, a collection of wonderful, exciting, shocking and also boring news, may have been a part of my digital feed for years. The idea of actually picking up the phone to reconnect with a long-lost friend is an intimidating one—even seeing the name of an old friend pop up in an incoming call can feel a little afraid.
I ask my husband, “Who would we call?” After tossing around a few names, we agree on some potential candidates—people whose lives have taken them in different directions, but with whom we still share deep friendships.
35. How does the author feel about her husband’s suggestion at first?
A. Excited. B. Motivated. C. Nervous. D. Surprised.
36. With the phone, the author’s teenage years was_____.
A. difficult but interesting
B. peaceful and meaningful
C. pleasant and unforgettable
D. inconvenient but enjoyable
37. In the following days, the couple may ____.
A. share more of their private information with others
B. contact more long-lost friends through social media
C. have more personal communications with their friends
D. add more friends’ names to the contact lists in their phones
C
Mathew White, an environmental psychologist, is on a mission to give Mother Nature the respect he thinks she deserves when it comes to human health. For decades, scientists and health-care professionals have recognized that exposure to green spaces, such as public parks or forests, is linked with lower risks of all sorts of illnesses common in the world. Experimental work has demonstrated various
physiological responses that occur when people spend time in natural environments: blood pressure drops, heart rate decreases, immune function improves, and the nervous system directs the body to rest and digest.
As humans increasingly populate urbanized areas, they are spending less and less time in natural environments. But before doctors can start advising their patients to head to the nearest park, there is an important outstanding question, says White: How much time in nature do you need to generate these apparent benefits? Most of the research that has linked health outcomes with exposure to the natural world didn’t use frequency or duration of park visits, but rather the amount of green space within a certain distance of a person’s home, White says. But “it’s not so much where you live; it’s whether you use it or not.”
So he collected data to estimate what dose（剂量） of nature was needed to show benefits to a person’s health. White’s group found the answer he was after: Spending at least two hours in nature per week was strongly correlated with self-reports of being in good health or having high wellbeing. “I was very surprised, to be honest,” says White, who had been expecting a much longer time. “We had no idea that such a clear threshold of time per week would emerge from the data.”
He was further surprised to learn that it didn’t seem to matter how many trips to a park people took, so long as they got in their two hours per week. It could be a long visit one day, a couple of hour-long trips, three visits of 40 minutes, or four half-hour
excursions. He and his colleagues speculate that, if nature’s apparent health benefits are a result of being able to de-stress, then whatever pattern of green space exposure fits one’s schedule is probably the best way to achieve that goal.
Health-care recommendations for people to spend time in nature are probably years away, but the movement has begun. Several organizations around the world are working to promote awareness of nature’s contribution to health. Some researchers have used the term “a dose of nature” to evaluate the amount of exposure needed to gain benefits. “That was kind of the deliberate medicalization of the language around nature and health,” says White.
38. White’s research focused on_______.
A. required amount of green space
B. benefits from the exposure to nature
C. necessary time length of nature visits
D. physical responses to outdoor activities
39. What does the underlined phrase “threshold of time” in Paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. Maximum time. B. Minimum time. C. Adequate time. D. Average time.
40. From the last paragraph, we can infer that White______.
A. is confident about his mission
B. is willing to cooperate with others
C. has persuaded others to accept his idea
D. has adopted the term for his research result
41. What’s the best title for the passage?
A. Respect for Nature B. Nature as Medicine
C. Present from Nature D. Mission in Nature
D
Once I told someone I wanted to get a master’s degree of fine arts in creative writing and they told me it was the second-to-worst post-graduation plan they’d ever heard from a student. Arts degrees — especially fine arts degrees, which usually come in the form of music, studio art, creative writing and theater — have been, over the years, labeled useless.
It’s true that for the most part, STEM degrees lead to higher paying jobs than liberal and fine arts degrees, and it’s understandable why young people care about a higher starting salary and financial security. Student loan debt is playing a role in the physical and mental stress of young people.
And while STEM majors usually have starting salaries that are $20,000 higher than those of liberal arts majors, by the time people reach the age of 40, the salaries between those who majored in the liberal arts and those who majored in STEM are virtually the same. For example, women who major in STEM earned nearly 50% more than social science and history majors at ages 23-25, but only 10% more by ages 38-40, a New York Times analysis reported. So even in terms of salary, which doesn’t solely determine whether or not a degree is useful, liberal arts degrees aren’t all that far behind STEM.
It seems too that since people nowadays are going to have to work longer, it’s more important than ever that we actually like and care about what we’re doing. Pursuing something enjoyable, or else a passion, is continuously found to be a key factor in maintaining healthy relationships, mental health, physical health and energy. In other words, not useless.
Art is also a method of communication. It allows people from different backgrounds, from different walks of life to communicate with each other. In a world where
borders and division seem to be all over the place, we need art more than ever. We need liberal arts majors. And more than anything, we need to be able to pursue what we love with confidence, and we need to not get caught up in the “usefulness” of what we love.
And just because someone’s primary job isn’t in their field of study — a writer who teaches high school for example— doesn’t make the degree useless. It just means that their way of finding a stable income is different. The same goes for artists who have to work multiple jobs to support themselves. They might have to find other means of supporting themselves and their artistry. It might be copy editing or it might be tutoring.
So I am going to graduate school, and I am going to graduate school for writing. I might be paying rent by way of overnight restaurant shifts — there’s so much I’m not sure of. But one thing I am sure of is this — I would rather be a writer working two jobs to pay my bills than be no writer at all.
42. A New York Times analysis report is mentioned in Paragraph 3 to ______.
A. analyse the potential value of different majors
B. put forward the opinion on majors by example
C. prove the argument against arts degrees wrong
D. demonstrate the link between majors and incomes
43. Why does the author think learning arts is useful?
A. Following one’s dream of arts keeps one in good condition.
B. Doing what one loves builds up one’s self-confidence in arts.
C. Mastering arts improves one’s understanding of different jobs.
D. Developing a love for arts helps one maintain passion for work.
44. The author thinks that doing multiple jobs is _______.
A. unavoidable B. common C. traditional D. acceptable 45. What can we infer from the passage?
A. Students learning arts are more concerned about the value of life.
B. People tend to place income in the first place when choosing majors.
C. The man who doesn’t love his work won’t stick with the job for long.
D. Graduates can find a broader space of development in the field of arts.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
At one point or another, you’ve probably heard someone speak with confidence on a topic that they actually know almost nothing about. This phenomenon is known as the Dunning-Kruger effect, which refers to the finding that people who are relatively unskilled or unknowledgeable in a particular subject sometimes have the tendency
to overestimate their knowledge and abilities.
In a set of studies, researchers Justin Kruger and David Dunning asked participants to complete tests of their skills in a particular domain. Then, participants were asked to guess how well they had done on the test. 46 This effect was most pronounced among participants with the lowest scores on the test.
David Dunning explains that “the knowledge and intelligence that are required to be good at a task are often the same qualities needed to recognize that one is not good at that task.” In other words, if someone knows very little about a particular topic, they may not even know enough about the topic to realize that their knowledge is limited. Importantly, someone may be highly skilled in one area, but be influenced by the Dunning-Kruger effect in another domain. 47
If people who know very little about a topic think they’re experts, what do experts think of themselves? Interestingly, Dunning and Kruger found that although experts typically guessed their performance was above average, they didn’t realize quite how well they had done. They often make a different mistake: 48
What can people do to overcome the effect? Dunning and Kruger once had some of the participants take a logic test and then complete a short training session on logical reasoning. After the training, the participants were asked to assess how they’d done on the previous test. 49
Afterward, the participants who scored in the bottom 25 percent lowered their estimate of how well they thought they had done on the initial test. In other words, one way to overcome the effect may be to learn more about a topic.
The Dunning-Kruger effect suggests that we may not always know as much as we think we do.
50 However, by challenging ourselves to learn more and by reading about opposing views, we can work to overcome the effect.
A. Researchers found that the training made a difference.
B. They assume that everyone else is knowledgeable, too.
C. This happens when people don’t know much about a topic.
D. All of them had a more accurate view of their performance.
E. They found that participants tended to overestimate their abilities.
F. This means that everyone can potentially be affected by the Dunning-Kruger effect.
G. In some domains, we may not know enough about a topic to realize that we are unskilled.
第三部分：书面表达（共两节，35分）
第一节（15分）
假设你是红星中学高三学生李华。你从英国笔友Jim的来信中得知他所在的大学正在招募国际学生参加暑期夏令营活动。你有意参加。请给该大学写封邮件，内容包括：
1. 表示感兴趣；
2. 你打算参加的原因；
3. 询问相关信息。
注意：1．词数不少于50；
2．开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Sir/Madam,
Yours Sincerely,
Li Hua
（请务必将作文写在答题卡指定区域内）
第二节（20分）
假设你是红星中学高三学生李华。请根据以下四幅图的先后顺序给学校英文报投稿，记述你所居住的小区在你的建议下建立爱心驿站的过程。
注意：1. 词数不少于60;
2. 开头已给出，不计入总词数。
提示词： 物业 the management department
Last week, a rest station was set up at my suggestion in our community. ________________________________
（请务必将作文写在答题卡指定区域内）
北京市东城区 2019—2020 学年度第二学期高三综合练习（二）
英语参考答案及评分标准 2020.6
第一部分：知识运用（共两节，45分）
第一节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分）
1. in 2. dangerous 3. months 4. where 5. what
6. set 7. Writing 8. ourselves 9. is spent 10. abandoned
第二节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，共30分）
11．A 12．D 13．D 14．A 15．C
16．B 17．D 18．B 19．A 20．B
21．C 22．C 23．D 24．A 25．B
26．C 27．D 28．C 29．A 30．B
第二部分：阅读理解（共两节，40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，
共30分）
31．D 32．A 33．A 34．B 35．D
36．C 37．C 38．C 39．B 40．A
41．B 42．C 43．A 44．D 45．B
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）
46．E 47．F 48．B 49．A 50．G
第三部分：书面表达（共两节，35分）
第一节（15分）
一、评分原则：
1．本题总分为15分，按4个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．评分时应考虑：内容是否完整，条理是否清楚，交际是否得体，语言是否准确。
4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5．词数少于50，从总分中减去1分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档
（13分～15分） 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 ·内容完整，条理清楚； ·交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求；体现出较强
的语言运用能力。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
（9分～12分） 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 ·内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求； ·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求； ·语法或用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
（4分～8分） 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 ·内容不完整； ·所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容
的理解。
未能清楚地传达信息。
第四档
（1分～3分） 未完成试题规定的任务。 ·写了少量相关信息； ·语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。
0分 未能传达任何信息；所写内容与要求无关。
三、One possible version
Dear Sir/Madam,
I’m from Hongxing Middle School, Beijing, China. I have heard about the summer camp for international students offered by your university. I am very interested in the project.
I have been looking for opportunities to experience campus life in the UK, which will definitely help improve my English and deepen my understanding of the English culture. Therefore, I’m writing to you to learn more about the upcoming project in your university.
I would be grateful if you provide me with some detailed information. First, what activities will be included in the summer camp? Apart from this, I also want to know the exact time and fee for the camp.
Thank you for taking the time to read my letter. I would appreciate it a lot if you could give me an early reply.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节（20分）
一、评分原则：
1．本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．评分时应考虑：内容要点的完整性、上下文的连贯、词汇和句式的多样性及语言的准确性。
4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5．词数少于60，从总分中减去1分。
二、内容要点：
1．关注 2．建议 3．倡议 4．建成
三、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档
（18分～20分） 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 ·覆盖了所有内容要点；
·运用了多样的句式和丰富的词汇； ·语法或用词方面有个别错误，但为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致；体现了较强的语言运用能力； ·有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，所写内容连贯、结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
（15分～17分） 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 ·覆盖了所有内容要点； ·运用的句式和词汇能满足任务要求； ·语法和用词基本准确，少许错误主要为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致； ·使用了简单的语句间连接成分，所写内容连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
（12分～14分） 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 ·覆盖了内容要点； ·运用的句式和词汇基本满足任务要求； ·语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档
（6分～11分） 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 ·漏掉或未描述清楚内容要点； ·所用句式和词汇有限；
·语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。
未能清楚地传达信息。
第五档
（1分～5分） 未完成试题规定的任务。 ·明显遗漏内容要点； ·句式单调、词汇贫乏； ·语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。
0分 未能传达任何信息；所写内容与要求无关。
四、One possible version
Last week, a rest station was set up at my suggestion in our community.
One day on my way home, I noticed several deliverymen crowding at the entrance to our community. At the sight of the workers who were sweating over the work, I suddenly came up with an idea. I decided to do something for them. I went to the management department of our community and suggested setting up a rest station for those deliverymen. The manager listened carefully and thought highly of my suggestion.
The next day, a poster was put up on the bulletin board in our community to call on people to donate. Many neighbors expressed their support and contributed some money. Some food and snacks were prepared soon.
On Friday afternoon, I returned home after school as usual. To my delight, a rest station had been set up. Several deliverymen and one cleaner were having a rest at the station. Some were drinking water, while others were having fruits. Seeing the bright smiles on their faces, I felt a sense of achievement. What a meaningful experience! A small act of kindness can make a big difference.
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